PHYSICAL EXAMINATION.

Upon the completion of the mental examination all candidates will be thoroughly examined physically by the medical officers of the board, under the following instructions prepared by the Surgeon General of the Army:

Hearing must be normal in both ears.

Vision, as determined by the official test types, must not fall below 20/40 in either eye, and not below 20/20 unless the defect is a simple refractive error not hyperopia, is not due to ocular disease, and is entirely corrected by proper glasses.

In the record of all examinations the acuity of vision without glasses, and also with glasses when the acuity is less than 20/20, will be given for each eye separately; in the latter case the correction will also be noted.

Hyperopia requiring any spherical correction, anisometropia, squint, or muscular insufficiency, if marked, are causes for rejection.

Color blindness, red, green, or violet, is cause for rejection.

The following are causes of disqualification if found to exist to such a degree as would immediately or at no very distant period impair the efficiency of the candidate:

1.—Feeble constitution; unsound health from whatever cause; indications of former disease, glandular swellings, or other symptoms of scrofula.

2.—Chronic cutaneous affections, especially of the scalp.

3.—Severe injuries of the bones of the head; convulsions.

4.—Impaired vision, from whatever cause; inflammatory affections of the eyelids; immobility or irregularity of the iris; fistula lachrymalis, &c., &c.

5.—Deafness; copious discharge from the ears.

6.—loss of many teeth, or the teeth generally unsound.

7.—Impediment of speech.

8.—Want of due capacity of the chest, and any other indication of a liability to a pulmonic disease.

9.—Impaired or inadequate efficiency of one or both of the superior extremities on account of fractures, especially of the clavicle, contraction of a joint, deformity, &c.

10.—An unusual excurvature or incurvature of the spine.

11.—Hernia.

12.—A varicose state of the veins of the scrotum or spermatic cord (when large), hydrocele, hemorrhoids, fistulas.

13.—Impaired or inadequate efficiency of one or both of the inferior extremities on account of varicose veins, fractures, malformation (flat feet, &c.), lameness, contraction, unequal length, bunions, overlying or supernumerary toes, &c., &c.

14.—Ulcers, or unsound cicatrices of ulcers likely to break out afresh.

The requirements of the following tables of physical proportions are minimum for growing youths and are for the guidance of medical officers in connection with the other data of the examination, a consideration of all of which should determine the candidate’s physical eligibility. Mere fulfillment of the requirements of the standard tables does not determine eligibility, while on the other hand no departure below the standard should be allowed unless upon the unanimous recommendation of the medical examining board for excellent reasons clearly stated in each case.

The physical requirements should be those of the age at the birthday nearest the time of the examination. Fractions greater than ½ inch will be considered as an additional inch of height, but candidates 17 years old must be at least 64 inches, and those 18 years and upward at least 65 inches in height.

Table of physical proportion for height, weight, and chest measurement.

Age.Height, inches.Weight, pounds.Chest measurement—expiration, inches.Chest mobility, inches.
17 yrs.64110292
6511229¼2
6611429½2
6711629¾2
68119302½
6912230¼2½
7012530½2½
7112830¾2½
18 yrs.6511730¼2
6611930½2
6712130¾2
68124312½
6912731¼2½
7013031½2½
7113331¾2½
72136323
19 yrs.6512130¾2
66123312
6712531¼2
6812931½2½
6913331¼2½
70137322½
7114132¼2½
7214532½3
7314932¾3
20 yrs.65122312
6612431¼2
6712631½2
6813031¾2½
69134322½
7013832¼2½
7114232½2½
7214632¾3
73150333
7415433¼3½
21 yrs.6512331½2
6612531½2
6712731¾2
68132322½
6913732¼2½
7014232½2½
7114732¾2½
72152333
7315733¼3
7416233½3½
7516733¾3½
22 yrs.6512531½2
6612731¾2
67129322
6813432¼2½
6913932½2½
7014432¾2½
71149332½
7215433¼3
7315933½3
7416433¾3½
75169343½
7617434¼4

MENTAL EXAMINATION.

ALGEBRA.—Candidates will be required to pass a satisfactory examination in that portion of algebra which includes the following range of subjects: definitions and notation; the fundamental laws; the fundamental operations, viz.: addition, subtraction, multiplication and division; factoring; highest common factor; lowest common multiple; fractions, simple and complex; simple, or linear, equations with one unknown quantity; simultaneous simple, or linear, equations with two or more unknown quantities; involution, including the formation of the squares and cubes of polynomials; binomial theorem with positive integral exponents; evolution, including the extraction of the square and cube roots of polynomials and of numbers: theory of exponents; radicals, including reduction and fundamental operations, rationalization, equations involving radicals, operations with imaginary numbers, quadratic equations; equations of quadratic form; simultaneous quadratic equations; ratio and proportion; arithmetical and geometrical progressions. Candidates will be required to solve problems involving any of the principles or methods contained in the foregoing subjects.

The following questions were used at a recent examination:

Substitute y + 3 for x in x⁴-x³ + 2x²-3 and arrange the result in descending powers of y.

On the eve of a battle one army had 5 men to every 6 men in the other. The first army lost 14,000 men and the second 6,000 men. The first army then had 2 men to every 3 men in the other. How many men were there originally in each army?

Solve 1.2x - (.18x - .05)/.5 = .4w + 8.9

Find the lowest common multiple of 1-x, x²-1, x-2, and x²-4.

Solve √x + 9 = 2 √x - 3.

Solve (2x - 3)² = 8x.

Expand (m-3/4-m(4/3))⁴ by the Binominal Theorem.

Find all the values of a for which the roots of ax² + 2(a + 3)x + 16 = 0 are equal.

Solve ((x + y)/2) - ((x - y)/3) = 8 and ((x + y)/3) + ((x - y)/4) = 11.

Solve x² - 4y² = 9, xy + 2y² = 3.

A certain article of consumption is subject to a duty of $1.50 per cwt. In consequence of a reduction in duty the consumption increases one half, but the revenue falls off one third. Find the duty per cwt. after the reduction.

A and B run a mile. First A gives B a start of 44 yards and beats him by 51 seconds; at the second heat A gives B a start of 1 minute and 15 seconds and is beaten by 88 yards. Find the time in which A and B can run a mile separately.

Sum to infinity the progression 3 + 2 + 4/3....

A servant agrees for certain wages the first month, on the understanding that they are to be raised a dollar every subsequent month until they reach $60 a month. At the end of the first of the months for which he receives $60 he finds that his wages during his time of service have averaged $48 per month. How long has he served?

PLANE GEOMETRY.—Candidates will be required to give accurate definitions of the terms used in plane geometry, to demonstrate any proposition of plane geometry as given in the ordinary text-books and to solve simple geometrical problems either by a construction or by an application of algebra.

The following questions were used at a recent examination:

Define the following:

1°. Rhombus. 2°. A mean proportional. 3°. Similar triangles. 4°. A segment of a circle. 5°. The apothem of a regular polygon.

Theorem: The perpendicular is the shortest line between a point and a straight line.

Theorem: In the same circle or equal circles, the less of two chords is at the greater distance from the centre; conversely, the chord at the greater distance from the centre is the less.

Construction: Divide a given straight line internally in extreme and mean ratio.

Theorem: The areas of two triangles which have an angle of one equal to the angle of the other are to each other as the products of the sides including those angles.

Problem: Given a circle of unit diameter and the side of a regular inscribed polygon, find the side of a regular inscribed polygon of double the number of sides.

Theorem: The four bisectors of the four angles of a quadrilateral form a second quadrilateral, the opposite angles of which are supplementary.

Theorem: If on the diameter of a circle two points be taken equally distant from the centre, the sum of the squares of the distances of any point of the circumference from these two points is constant.

Problem: Find the locus of the point of intersection of the three altitudes of a triangle, given a fixed base, and constant angle at the vertex.

ENGLISH GRAMMAR.—Candidates must have a good knowledge of English grammar; they must be able to define the terms used therein; to define the parts of speech; to give inflections, including declension, conjugation and comparison; to give the corresponding masculine and feminine gender nouns; to give and apply the ordinary rules of syntax.

They must be able to parse correctly any ordinary sentence; giving the subject of each verb, the governing word of each objective case, the word for which each pronoun stands or to which it refers, the words between which each preposition shows the relation, precisely what each conjunction and each relative pronoun connects, what each adjective and adverb qualifies or limits, the construction of each infinitive, and generally to show a good knowledge of the function of each word in the sentence.

They must be able to correct in sentences or extracts any ordinary grammatical errors.

It is not required that any particular text-book shall be followed: but the definitions, parsing, and corrections must be in accordance with good usage and common sense.

The examinations may include questions similar to the following:

1. Define and give examples of: a. infinitive; b. indirect object; c. simple sentence.

2. Give the principal parts of: a. choose; b. crow; c. freeze; d. fly; e. burst.

3. (i). Give the plurals of: a. motto: b. fairy; c. money: d. belief; e. axis. (ii). Indicate which of the following words are singular, which are plural, and which may be either: a. cherubim; b. mathematic; c. species; d. basis; e. news.

4. (i). Give the feminine of: a. hero; b. gander; c. duke; d. priest; e. Englishman. (ii). Indicate the gender of: a. songster; b. spinster; c. goose; d. mouse; e. book.

5. (i). Give the possessive case singular of: a. it; b. princes; c. Kings of Italy; d. Henry the Fourth; e. man-of-war. (ii). Give the possessive case plural of: a. brother-in-law; b. Jones; c. I; d. who; e. Musselman.

6. Give the comparison of: a. mournful; b. little; c. great; d. old; e. angry.

7. Parse the italicized words in the following sentence: Other things being equal, it is obvious that the writer who has most words to choose from is most likely to find in his assortment just the word which he needs at a given moment.

8. Correct all words in the following sentences. Of words in brackets {} draw a line through the incorrect word or words:

{your}
1. Have either of you brought{their}umbrellas?
{his}

2. The river had overflown its banks.

3. John thinks he{will}be able to come and that James{shall}come also.
{shall}{will}

4. Men are in the plural number because they mean more than one.

5. That is neither a squirrel or rabbit’s track.

6. I believe he dont know its here.

7. Him dying at this time led to the attempt being given up.

ENGLISH COMPOSITION AND ENGLISH LITERATURE.—Candidates will be required:

1. By the writing of short themes on subjects chosen by themselves within limits set by the examination paper, to prove (a) their ability to spell, capitalize, and punctuate, and (b) their mastery of the elementary principles of composition, including paragraphing and sentence-structure.

2. To give evidence of intelligent acquaintance with three plays of Shakespeare: one comedy, one history, and one tragedy,—The Merchant of Venice, Henry V., and Macbeth being especially recommended.

3. To exhibit a fair knowledge of the names of the most prominent English and American authors, and of the names of their principal works.

The general character and scope of the examination are indicated by the following specimen:

A. Write a composition of about two hundred and fifty words, on each of four subjects selected from the following list. (Of two or more subjects in brackets choose but one.)

1.The Story of the Three Caskets in The Merchant of Venice.
A Character-Sketch of Antonio.
2.The Influences that Caused Macbeth’s Moral Downfall.
The Story of Macduff.
3.{ The English Army at Agincourt (in Henry V.)
{ A Brief Narrative of the Historical Events of Henry V. Previous to Agincourt.
4.{ A Description of a Building.
{ A Character-Sketch of a Dog.
{ A Narrative of an Interesting Journey.
{ Reasons for Liking a Favorite Book.
{ How to Make a Squirrel-Trap (or a Kite, or an Ice-Boat, etc.)

B. 1. What author wrote The Ancient Mariner? Comus? The Marble Faun? Rasselas? Barbara Frietchie?

2. Name two works of each of the following authors: Goldsmith, Emerson, Burke, Macaulay.

3. Give the names of two principal works of a great American novelist; a great English Puritan poet of the seventeenth century; an English woman novelist of the last century; a living American novelist.

GEOGRAPHY.—Candidates will be required to pass a satisfactory examination in descriptive geography and the elements of physical geography. A preponderance of weight is attached to a knowledge of the geography of the United States.

In descriptive geography of the United States, candidates should be thoroughly informed as to its general features and boundaries; adjacent oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, sounds, straits, and islands; lakes, the location and extent of mountain ranges; the sources, directions, and terminations of the important rivers, the names of their principal tributaries, and at what points, if any, these rivers break through highlands on their way to the ocean; the water routes of communication from one part of the country to another; the location and termination of important railroad lines; the boundaries of the several states and territories and their order along the coasts, frontiers and principal rivers; the locations and boundaries of the island possessions; and the names and locations of the capitals and other important cities of the several states, territories and island possessions.

In short, the knowledge should be so complete that a clear mental picture of the whole of the United States is impressed on the mind of the candidate.

In descriptive geography of other countries, candidates should be familiar with the continental areas and grand divisions of water; the earth’s surface; the large bodies of water which in part or wholly surround the grand divisions of the land; the capes, from what parts they project and into what waters, the principal peninsulas, location, and by what waters embraced; the parts connected by an isthmus; the principal islands, location and surrounding waters; the seas, gulfs, and bays, the coasts they indent, and the waters to which they are subordinate; the straits, the lands they separate, and the waters they connect; the location of the principal lakes: the locations, boundaries, capitals and principal cities of the political divisions of the world.

In physical geography, candidates should be familiar with the relief of the earth’s surface; the principal mountain systems, the river systems and watersheds; the coastal and lake plains, and the influence of climate, soil, mineral deposits and other physical features on the resources, industries, commercial relations and development of a country and its people, especially of the United States.

The following questions were used at a recent examination:

1. Name the bodies of water surrounding Europe.

2. Where is 1. Cape St. Vincent, 2. Cape Corrientes, 3. Cape Matapan, 4. Cape Lopez, 5. Cape Comorin, 6. Cape York.

3. Name in order the political divisions of South America which border on the Pacific Ocean and the capital of each.

4. Locate definitely the following islands: 1. Mauritius, 2. Tasmania, 3. Formosa, 4. New Zealand, 5. Madeira, 6. Falkland; to what country does each belong?

5. Where are the gulfs of 1. Bothnia, 2. Guinea, 3. Paria, 4. Salonica, 5. Pechili?

6. What lands are separated and what waters connected by 1. Torres Strait, 2. Hudson Strait, 3. Strait of Malacca?

7. Bound Italy; name its capital, largest river and principal mountain range.

8. Locate definitely the following cities: 1. Vienna, 2. Nankin, 3. Cork, 4. Tunis, 5. Montevideo, 6. Batavia, 7. Suez, 8. Pretoria.

9. Name in order the waters traversed in sailing from Liverpool, England, to Hong Kong, China.

10. A considerable portion of the boundary line of the United States is along what parallel?

11. Locate definitely the following: 1. Flathead Lake, 2. Sabine Pass, 3. Black Hills, 4. Sebago Lake, 5. Cape Lookout, 6. Montauk Point, 7. Wichita Mountains, 8. Lingayen Bay.

12. The meridian of Minneapolis passes through what states?

13. Name the principal rivers that drain Pennsylvania; where do they rise, at what points do they leave the state and at what points, if any, do they break through highlands?

14. Name all the waters traversed in going by the two commercial water routes from Duluth to the Atlantic Ocean.

15. Name the principal ranges of mountains crossed in going by rail from New York to San Francisco; state the rail route assumed to be traveled.

16. Bound precisely the following states and territories: 1. Montana, 2. Arizona, 3. Arkansas, 4. Wisconsin, 5. Pennsylvania, 6. Georgia. (In bounding, all contiguous states must be mentioned as well as rivers, mountain ranges, etc.)

17. Name the states west of the Mississippi River, drained wholly or in part by it or its tributaries, and give the capital of each.

18. Locate accurately the following cities: 1. Austin, 2. Pensacola, 3. Ashville, 4. Winchester, 5. Allegheny, 6. Iloilo, 7. Oswego, 8. Pasadena, 9. Guthrie, 10. Detroit.

19. Going by water from New Orleans, La., to Pittsburgh, Pa., what states would you pass on the left?

20. How many large islands are there in the Hawaiian group? Which is the largest? Which is the most important?

21. Going westward on the 35th parallel of north latitude, from near Newberne, N. C., what states and large rivers would be crossed?

22. Describe the chief mountain system of the eastern hemisphere, and state what island chains of Asia abound in volcanoes.

23. What are the great river systems of South America? Where are the principal coastal plains?

24. What are the qualifications of a good harbor? Name three of the best harbors on the Atlantic coast; one on the Pacific coast.

25. What has made the Middle Atlantic states the principal commercial section of the United States?

HISTORY.—Candidates must be thoroughly familiar with so much of the History of the United States, and of Ancient Greece and Rome as is contained in good high school text-books on these subjects, and must have a good knowledge of the important facts in General Ancient History and in the History of Medieval Europe to the end of the fifteenth century.

In History of the United States, the examination will include questions concerning early discoveries and settlements; the forms of government in the colonies; the causes, leading events, and results of wars; important events in the political and economic history of the nation since its foundation; and the elementary principles of civil government, with special reference to the federal congress, executive and judiciary.

In Ancient History, the examination will include questions on important persons and events in the legendary and authentic history of Greece and Rome, and on general important facts in the history of other ancient peoples, taking some account also of Greek art, of Greek and Roman literature, and especially of Roman government.

In History of Medieval Europe, the greater emphasis will be laid on the period from Charlemagne to the end of the Middle Ages, particularly on events connected with the political and social development of England.

Questions similar to the following in character and scope are likely to be asked:

1. What explorations or discoveries did each of the following named persons make? Give the date in each case. a. Narvaez. b. Coronado. c. Marquette. d. La Salle.

2. Name three colonies that were founded for religious reasons and give the sect or denomination by which each was colonized.

3. Who were the Pilgrims? Explain the difference between “Pilgrim” and “Puritan.”

4. When, and under what circumstances was Delaware separated from Pennsylvania?

5. Give an account of Bacon’s Rebellion?

6. When and where did each of the following events occur? a. Meeting of the first Colonial Congress. b. Burgoyne’s surrender. c. Arnold’s treason.

7. Name some important results of each of the following battles of the Revolutionary War: a. Long Island. b. Trenton. c. Brandywine.

8. Name four additions to the territory of the United States since the Revolutionary War, and give the way each has been acquired.

9. Bound the territory of the United States at the close of the Revolutionary War.

10. What was the “Massacre of Wyoming”?

11. When, where, and for what purpose, did the Constitutional Convention meet? What resulted from its deliberations?

12. What was the “Whiskey Insurrection”?

13. What were the “Alien and Sedition” laws? What was their effect?

14. When and where was the last battle of the War of 1812 fought? Name the commanders on each side.

15. What were the two principal political parties in 1860? Their candidates for the Presidency? Their leading doctrines on the slavery question? Parties. Candidates, Principles.

16. With what foreign nations had the United States unfriendly relations during and at the close of the Civil War? Give the cause in each case.

17. Name, with date, three important military events of 1865.

18. What Vice-Presidents have become President? Name the predecessor in each case.

19. Give an account of the “Virginius affair.”

20. In what war were the following battles fought? What were the opposing forces? Which side won? a. Ticonderoga. b. Monterey. c. Saratoga. d. Stony Point. e. Spottsylvania. f. Lundy’s Lane.

21. By what authority could Lincoln proclaim the emancipation of the slaves? What states were immediately affected by the Emancipation Proclamation? How was emancipation legally completed later?

22. How may the Constitution of the United States be amended? Name two important constitutional amendments.

23. Name three offices in the cabinet of the President of the United States, and state the chief duties that belong to each.

24. Explain as briefly as possible how a minority of actual votes might defeat a majority at a presidential election.

25. Define Electoral College; Spoils System; Primary; Supreme Court.

1. Into what general periods is the history of Egypt divided? What did Egypt contribute to Greek civilization?

2. Name one of the great kings of Assyria. Mention two important facts concerning the city of Nineveh.

3. Mention the principal events of the reign of Darius I., and the most noteworthy feature of his government. Of what nation was he ruler?

4. Mention three important facts in connection with the Phœnicians as traders and colonizers in the West.

5. Who were: Agamemnon? Achilles? Hercules? Homer?

6. Mention two ways in which the physical geography of Greece influenced the national life and character.

7. What was the nature of the government of Athens after the expulsion of the Tyrants?

8. Name four great battles of the Græco-Persian War, and give the date of any two of them.

9. What states were leaders in the great war between the states of Greece? What caused the war? What were its chief results?

10. Outline the career of conquest of Alexander the Great. About when did he die? How would his undertaking have been more difficult if he had turned west instead of east?

11. In Greek History what is the significance of the following names and phrases: Aristides? The Olympian Games? Solon? The Confederacy of Delos? Delphi? Sophocles? Praxiteles?

12. Give the main points in the Greek colonial system. How did the Roman colonial system differ most conspicuously from the Greek?

13. Give the titles of the principal officers of the Roman Republic and describe their functions.

14. What were the Punic Wars? How many in number? Name two great generals on each side.

15. Mention four causes that led to the fall of the Roman Republic. Discuss briefly the operation of two of them toward this result.

16. Why did the Emperors persecute the Christians? State the attitude of Diocletian and Constantine respectively toward the Christians.

17. For what is each of the following emperors most famous: Marcus Aurelius? Justinian? Nero?

18. In Roman History what is the significance of: The Gracchi? Horace? The Comitia Curiata? Verres? The Battle of Chalons? A Pyrrhian Victory? Æneas? Alaric?

19. What do the following dates mean to you: 800? 1066? 1215? 1453?

20. What do you know of Joan of Arc?

21. How did the Feudal System originate? Define Suzerain, Vassal, Serf.

22. What was The Renaissance? By what inventions and discoveries was it quickened? Through what channel was ancient science transmitted to modern times?

23. Who was Simon de Montfort?

24. What changes took place in the condition of the English peasantry in the fourteenth century? Due to what causes?

25. Toward the close of the fifteenth century in England was the power of Parliament becoming greater or less than it had been previously? By what right was Henry IV. King of England? What was the earliest form of parliamentary assembly in English history?