This amendment, equally with the ninth, secures to "the people" all their natural rights. And why?
Because, in truth, no powers at all, neither legislative, judicial, nor executive, had been "delegated to the United States by the constitution."
But it will be said that the amendment itself implies that certain lawmaking "powers" had been "delegated to the United States by the constitution."
No. It only implies that those who adopted the amendment believed that such lawmaking "powers" had been "delegated to the United States by the constitution."
But in this belief, they were entirely mistaken. And why?
1. Because it is a natural impossibility that any lawmaking "powers" whatever can be delegated by any one man, or any number of men, to any other man, or any number of other men.
Men's natural rights are all inherent and inalienable; and therefore cannot be parted with, or delegated, by one person to another. And all contracts whatsoever, for such a purpose, are necessarily absurd and void contracts.
For example. I cannot delegate to another man any right to make laws—that is, laws of his own invention—and compel me to obey them.
Such a contract, on my part, would be a contract to part with my natural liberty; to give myself, or sell myself, to him as a slave. Such a contract would be an absurd and void contract, utterly destitute of all legal or moral obligation.
2. I cannot delegate to another any right to make laws—that is, laws of his own invention—and compel a third person to obey them.