To prove that two are equal to one:
Let x = a: Then, x2 = ax,
x2 − a2 = ax − a2,
(x + a)(x − a) = a(x − a),
x + a = a,
2a = a,
2 = 1.Q. E. D.
Where is the fallacy?
To prove that two are equal to one:
Let x = a: Then, x2 = ax,
x2 − a2 = ax − a2,
(x + a)(x − a) = a(x − a),
x + a = a,
2a = a,
2 = 1.Q. E. D.
Where is the fallacy?