But this subjunctive form is not agreeable to the structure of the language. It has been demonstrated that our conjunctions are mostly old Saxon verbs in the imperative mode. Let us resolve some sentences where the subjunctive form is used; for example, the passages before quoted.
"If he have any knowlege of actual existence, he must be satisfied."——Priestley's Letters.
Resolved—"He have any knowlege of actual existence, (if) give that, he must be satisfied." Is this English?
"If thou be the son of God, command that these stones be made bread."——Matth. iv. 3.
Resolved—"Thou be the son God, give that, command," &c.
"Tho he slay me, yet will I trust in him."
Resolved—"He slay me, grant it, yet will I trust in him."
This is the literal construction of those sentences; the two first are present time, the last, which is future, is merely elliptical.
If therefore, I be, he have, are good English in the present tense of the indicative, the foregoing are correct expressions; if not, they are incorrect; for every such conditional sentence is resolvable into two or more declaratory phrases. Let us substitute the Latin derivative, which precisely answers to if, viz. suppose; thus, in place of "if thou be the son of God," write, "suppose thou be the son of God," does not every ear acknowlege the impropriety? The only difference between the two expressions is this; if is a Saxon verb in the imperative mode, and suppose, a Latin one in the same mode.