Assuming that the Glengall Iron Company, in dispensing with the further services of the respondents, were guilty of no wrong, I am willing to take it that any person who procured their act might incur responsibility to those who were injuriously affected by it, if he employed unlawful means of inducement directed against them. According to the decision of the majority in Lumley v. Gye, 2 E. & B. 216, already referred to, a person who by illegal means, that is, means which in themselves are in the nature of civil wrongs, procures the lawful act of another, which act is calculated to injure, and does injure, a third party, commits a wrong for which he may be made answerable. So long as the word “means” is understood in its natural and proper sense, that rule appears to me to be intelligible; but I am altogether unable to appreciate the loose logic which confounds internal feeling with outward acts, and treats the motive of the actor as one of the means employed by him.
It has been maintained, and some of the learned judges who lent their assistance to the House have favored the argument, that the appellant used coercion as a means of compelling the Glengall Iron Company to terminate their connection with the respondents; but that conclusion does not appear to me to be the fair result of the evidence. If coercion, in the only legal sense of the term, was employed, it was a wrong done as much to the Glengall Iron Company, who are the parties said to have been coerced, as to the respondents. Its result might be prejudicial to the respondents, but its efficacy wholly depended upon its being directed against and operating upon the company. It must be kept in view that the question of what amounts to wrongful coercion in a legal sense involves the same considerations which I have discussed in relation to the elements of a civil wrong as committed by the immediate actor. According to my opinion, coercion, whatever be its nature, must, in order to infer the legal liability of the person who employs it, be intrinsically and irrespectively of its motive a wrongful act. According to the doctrine ventilated in Temperton v. Russell, [1893] 1 Q. B. 715, and the present case it need not amount to a wrong, but will become wrongful if it was prompted by a bad motive.
I have already indicated that, in my opinion, no light is thrown upon the decision of the present question by Pitt v. Donovan, 1 M. & S. 639, and other cases of that class. The defendant had in that case represented, contrary to the fact, that the plaintiff was insane at the time when he executed a particular deed. The communication was made to a person to whom the defendant was under a legal duty to make the disclosure if it had been true; and the defendant was in law absolved from the ordinary consequences of his having circulated a libel which was false and injurious, if he honestly believed it to be true. The law applicable in cases of that description is, I apprehend, beyond all doubt; but the rule by which the law in certain exceptional cases excuses the perpetration of a wrong, by reason of the absence of evil motive, is insufficient to establish or to support the converse and very different proposition, that the presence of an evil motive will convert a legal act into a legal wrong.
[The opinions of Lord Ashbourne, and Lord Morris, concurring with Lord Halsbury, are omitted.]
Lord Herschell.
Great stress was laid at the bar on the circumstance that in an action for maliciously and without reasonable and probable cause putting in motion legal process an evil motive is an essential ingredient. I have always understood and I think that has been the general understanding, that this was an exceptional case. The person against whom proceedings have been initiated without reasonable and probable cause is prima facie wronged. It might well have been held that an action always lay for thus putting the law in motion. But I apprehend that the person taking proceedings was saved from liability if he acted in good faith because it was thought that men might otherwise be too much deterred from enforcing the law, and that this would be disadvantageous to the public. Some of the learned judges cite actions of libel and slander as instances in which the legal liability depends on the presence or absence of malice. I think this is a mistake. The man who defames another by false allegations is liable to an action, however good his motive, and however honestly he believed in the statement he made. It is true that in a limited class of cases the law, under certain circumstances, regards the occasion as privileged, and exonerates the person who has made false defamatory statements from liability if he has made them in good faith. But if there be not that duty or interest which in law creates the privilege, then, though the person making the statements may have acted from the best of motives, and felt it his duty to make them, he is none the less liable. The gist of the action is that the statement was false and defamatory. Because in a strictly limited class of cases the law allows the defence that the statements were made in good faith, it seems to me, with all deference, illogical to affirm that malice constitutes one of the elements of the torts known to the law as libel and slander. But even if it could be established that in cases falling within certain well-defined categories, it is settled law that an evil motive renders actionable acts otherwise innocent, that is surely far from showing that such a motive always makes actionable acts prejudicial to another which are otherwise lawful, or that it does so in cases like the present utterly dissimilar from those within the categories referred to.